75 Top SAP BO Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 75 SAP BO multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

SAP BO Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which sort option should you use to add Temporary Values?
A. Ascending
B. Descending
C. Custom Sort
D. Adaptive Sort
Ans: C

2. You use the Last Refresh Date cell from the Templates in the Report Manager on your report page. You then reformat the cell as Tuesday, January 22, 2008. What is the result when you edit the formula, using the Formula toolbar, to concatenate the string "Last Refresh Date: " and the LastExecutiondate() function?
A. The cell reads "Last Refresh Date: 1/22/08".
B. The "Computation Error" error message is displayed.
C. The "Incompatible Data Types" error message is displayed.
D. The cell reads "Last Refresh Date: {Tuesday, January 22, 2008}".
Ans: A

3. Which two functions could you use to concatenate the First Name and Last Name objects? (Choose two.)
A. =[First Name]+[Last Name]
B. =[First Name]&[Last Name]
C. =[First Name]||[Last Name]
D. =Concatenation([First Name];[Last Name])
E. =Concatenation([First Name],[Last Name])
Ans: A and D

4. Which panel should you use to create sub-queries?
A. Data Panel
B. Query Panel
C. Report Panel
D. Slice and Dice Panel
Ans: B

5. Which panel should you use to view a Document Summary of a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)?
A. Advanced
B. Query
C. Active X
D. Interactive
Ans: D

6. Which two statements are correct about saving documents? (Choose two.)
A. They are stored in folders.
B. They are stored in categories.
C. They can be assigned to a folder.
D. They can be assigned to a category.
Ans: A and D

7. Which three can you use to start the Web Intelligence Rich Client from? (Choose three.)
A. InfoView
B. Command Line
C. Start > All Programs
D. Central Management Console
Ans: A,B  and C

8. Which Pos() function syntax should you use to find the location of the space in the Category string "Evening wear"?
A. Pos([Category] , "" )
B. Pos((Category) , "" )
C. Pos([Category] ; " " )
D. Pos({Category} ; " " )
Ans: C

9. Which three statements are true of contexts? (Choose three.)
A. Contexts are defined in a report.
B. Contexts are defined in a universe.
C. You can combine objects in different contexts.
D. You can combine any objects within the same context to create a query.
Ans: B,C ,D

10. Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A. Drag the queries together
B. Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C. Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D. Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Ans: A

11. In the creation of a document, you have to import a personal data file. The data file contains date information, but when the file is imported, the dates are imported as character strings. Which function should you use to change the format from string to date?
A. Date()
B. Char()
C. ToChar()
D. ToDate()
Ans: D

12. Which three options are valid Page Layout Options in the Properties tab of a document? (Choose three.)
A. Top margin
B. Left margin
C. Page orientation
D. Background color
E. Visited hyperlink colors
Ans: A,B,C

13. Which options can you select when you save a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. Refresh on open
B. Associate universe
C. Permanent regional formatting
D. Send to users
Ans: A,C

14. You are working in the Web Intelligence Rich Client. Which two file formats can you save a document in? (Choose two.)
A. TXT
B. XLS
C. PDF
D. CSV
Ans: B,C

15. Which Web Intelligence viewer panel should you use to create links to documents by browsing to the file without typing any syntax?
A. Java Report Panel
B. ActiveX Report Panel
C. Interactive HTML Panel
D. .NET Interactive Report Panel
Ans: C

16. You open a Web Intelligence document (WID) with tracked data changes. You wish to change the color of the tracked data. You however cannot change the format of the tracked data. What should you do to enable formatting of the tracked data?
A. Contact the system administrator.
B. Edit the document in tracking mode.
C. Open the document in tracking mode.
D. Resave the document with data tracking formats enabled.
Ans: A

17. Which two statements are true about the AND operator? (Choose two.)
A. Used when any condition is met by two filters
B. Used when all conditions are met by two filters
C. Used when all conditions are met by more than two filters
D. Used when only one condition is met by any of the filters
Ans: B,C

18. How many blocks can you create in a Web Intelligence document (WID)?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
E. Unlimited
Ans: E

19. Which tool do you use to edit merged objects in BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0?
A. The Data tab of the Document Properties
B. The Edit Dimensions button on the Reporting toolbar
C. The Merge Dimensions button on the Reporting toolbar
D. The Object Properties in the Data tab of the Report Manager
Ans: C

20. Which is a benefit of using query drill?
A. Data is pre-fetched and stored for all levels prior to drill.
B. Data is pre-formatted and stored for all levels prior to drill.
C. Dedicated SQL statements are generated for each drill.
D. Levels you can drill through are based on your security profile.
Ans: C

21. Which two operators are used as calculation context operators? (Choose two.)
A. In
B. Where
C. Select
D. Having
Ans: A,B

22. Where can you set the default universe when using Web Intelligence within InfoView?
A. Query Panel
B. Report Panel
C. InfoView Options
D. InfoView Preferences
Ans: D

23. Which tab should you use to change the page orientation of a report?
A. Click File > Page Setup and select "Page Orientation"
B. In InfoView Preferences, change the default page orientation
C. Select the report tab; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"
D. Select the report page; in Report Manager, select the "Properties" tab and select the "Page Orientation"

Ans: D

24. Which three layout options can you use when creating sections in a report? (Choose three.)
A. Relative Position
B. Start on New Page
C. Keep Blocks Together
D. Avoid Page Break in Section
Ans: A,B,C

25. Which two are calculation context types?
A. Input
B. Output
C. Logical
D. Conditional
Ans: A,B

26. You want to compare the sales revenue performance of the top 20% of your customers to the average of all of your customers. You decide to apply a rank on the table that shows customers and revenue and create a variable to show the average revenue for all customers. Which function should you use in the variable?
A. NoFilter()
B. NoRank()
C. AverageAll()
D. IgnoreFilter()
Ans: A

27. Which three are drill options? (Choose three.)
A. Hide drill toolbar
B. Show drill filters
C. Prompt if drill requires additional data
D. Synchronize drill on report block
Ans: A,B,D

28. Which function would you use to extract the word "casual" from the product name "casual pants" of the Product Name field?
A. Left(5; [Product Name])
B. Left([Product Name]; 5)
C. Right((Product Name), 5)
D. Right(5, [Product Name])
Ans: B

29. Which two locations can you use to set the drill options? (Choose two.)
A. Report Properties
B. Query Panel Properties
C. Preferences in InfoView
D. Scope of Analysis Properties
E. Tools/Options in Web Intelligence Rich Client
Ans: C,E

30. Which type of relationship links sub-queries by default?
A. OR
B. AND
C. NOR
D. NAND
Ans: B

31. You are creating a report to summarize the number of cars sold by region. Which object should you use to aggregate the number of cars sold?
A. Sum
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
Ans: C

32. Which statement is a benefit of using a Web Intelligence formula?
A. The formula can be reused in a document from the Data tab.
B. The formula can be reused to create a variable.
C. The formula can be saved into a new function.
D. The formula can be saved and reused in a measure object.
Ans: B

33. Which three data sources can you synchronize in a Web Intelligence XI 3.0 document (WID)? (Choose three.)
A. Personal data files
B. Stored procedure data source
C. Queries from the same universe
D. Queries from different universes
Ans: A,C,D


34. What is the default behavior when creating a report from two queries from the same universe?
A. Result produces two table blocks.
B. Dimension objects are automatically merged.
C. Results are shown on two different report tabs.
D. Dimension objects are not automatically merged.
Ans: B

35. Where can you set the priority options for saving a Web Intelligence document (WID) to Microsoft Excel?
A. Web Intelligence
B. InfoView Preferences
C. Microsoft Excel File Options
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Ans: B

36. Where are formulas stored when created in Web Intelligence?
A. In the universe
B. On the report page
C. In the Central Management Server (CMS) database
D. In the metadata of the Cube
Ans: B

37. Which message appears when you select "Use query drill" while Scope of Analysis is set in a BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0 report?
A. The Scope of Analysis is empty.
B. The Scope of Analysis is not empty.
C. The query drill mode option is enabled.
D. The query drill mode option is not enabled.
Ans: B

38. Your document displays all data in black. Which dialog box should you use to configure the colors of your document data?
A. Document Palette
B. Document Formats
C. Display Preferences
D. Data Tracking Options
Ans: A

39. Which statement describes the performance impact that data tracking has on report refresh times, assuming that the data changes but the number of rows retrieved and the data volume stays the same?
A. It will refresh up to three times faster.
B. It will refresh up to three times slower.
C. It will refresh faster each time the report is refreshed.
D. It will refresh slower each time the report is refreshed.
Ans: B

40. Which two statements describe reasons for using the FormatDate() function? (Choose two.)
A. You want to convert a string object into a date object.
B. You want to convert a date object into a string object.
C. You want to format a date so that it is displayed as a string when it is concatenated with another string.
D. You want to modify the format of a string object into a non-standard date format.
Ans: B,C

41. Which two statements are true of an ambiguous query? (Choose two.)
A. It can be resolved with a loop.
B. It can be resolved with a context.
C. It contains all possible combinations of rows from the tables inferred by the objects.
D. It contains one or more objects that can potentially return two different types of information.

Ans: B,C

42. Which method should you use to activate "Interactive Viewing"?
A. Preferences in Web Intelligence
B. Preferences in InfoView
C. In the Document Properties
D. In the Report Properties
Ans: B

43. You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator.
Which two methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A. Rebuild the filters.
B. Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C. From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D. Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Ans: A,D

44. Which four authentication methods are available for Web intelligence Rich Client? (Choose four.)
A. AD
B. NT
C. LDAP
D. Vintella
E. Kerberos
F. Enterprise
Ans: A,B,C,F

45. Which Report Manager tab should you use to change report formatting?
A. Map
B. Data
C. Properties
D. Templates
Ans: C

46. Which three options are Web Intelligence drill mode options? (Choose three.)
A. Drill By
B. Drill Up
C. Drill Down
D. Drill Through
Ans: A,B,C

47. Which statement describes a benefit of using the NoFilter() function?
A. It overrides query filters.
B. It overrides query ranking.
C. It overrides report ranking.
D. It overrides universe security.
Ans: C

48. You are working with a set of store revenues. All stores have positive revenue values. Which formula should you use to display the variance value of the Revenue measure in your document when data tracking is active?
A. =[Revenue]/RefValue([Revenue])
B. =[Revenue]/PreValue([Revenue])
C. =[Revenue]/HistValue([Revenue])
D. =[Revenue]/BaseValue([Revenue])
Ans: A

49. Which function would you use to extract the word "pants" from the product name "casual pants" of the Product Name field?
A. Right(5; [Product Name])
B. Right([Product Name]; 5)
C. Right((Product Name), 5)
D. Right(5, [Product Name])
Ans: B

50. Which operator should you use to control the output context of a calculation that is relevant to the different environment levels within your document?
A. In
B. Out
C. ForAll
D. ForEach
Ans: A

51. Which BusinessObjects Enterprise tool supports Offline Mode logins?
A. InfoView
B. Java Panel
C. Interactive Panel
D. Web Intelligence Rich Client
Ans: D

52. Which two methods can you use to aggregate measures at the section level in BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0? (Choose two.)
A. Drag the measure from the Data tab into the section header.
B. Copy the measure from the Data tab into the section header.
C. While pressing the ALT key, drag the measure from the table to the section header.
D. While pressing the CTRL key, drag the measure from the table to the section header.
Ans: A,D

53. Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A. Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B. Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C. Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D. Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Ans: A

54. Where in Web Intelligence Rich Client interface can you see the data source for a document built on a local data source?
A. Global Settings
B. Report Settings
C. Query Properties
D. Document Properties
Ans: C

55. What automatically happens when you create a chart using the Templates tab in Web Intelligence?
A. Data is filtered using template dimensions.
B. Structure mode is selected.
C. Data is displayed on the report page.
D. Select Objects dialog box opens.
Ans: B

56. Which two are benefits of using breaks? (Choose two.)
A. Creates a navigation map
B. Makes the table block easier to read
C. Splits the block into smaller table blocks
D. Enables the use of subtotals in one block
Ans: B,D

57. Which two statements are true of contexts? (Choose two.)
A. You can combine objects in different contexts.
B. You cannot combine objects in different contexts.
C. You can combine any object within the same context to create a query.
D. You can combine only measures within the same context to create a query.
Ans: A,C

58. What is the maximum number for alerters in a document?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 30
D. 32
Ans: C

59. Which method should you use to store a Web Intelligence Rich Client document in an enterprise secured location?
A. Save the document to the Enterprise directories.
B. Save the document to the Enterprise documents.
C. Export the document to the Central Management Server (CMS).
D. Export the document to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM).
Ans: B

60. What happens when you drop a dimension into a blank part of a report that contains two blocks, without the ALT key selected?
A. A new block is created.
B. A new section is created.
C. An error message is displayed.
D. The currently selected cell is displayed.
Ans: B

61. Which two are running aggregate functions in Web Intelligence? (Choose two.)
A. RunningMax()
B. RunningSum()
C. RunningTotal()
D. RunningMean()
Ans: A,B

62. For what purposes can you use the Page Layout of a report?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. To display the definition of the block
B. To define how the report will look like in PDF mode
C. To define how the report will look like when printed.
D. To display the report page by default.
Ans: B,C

63. Where should you configure the regional settings of a Web Intelligence document (WID) within InfoView?
A. Local Settings
B. Browser Preferences
C. User Machine Settings
D. InfoView Preferences
Ans: D

64. Which three are prerequisites for combining data from multiple data providers? (Choose three.)
A. There are two or more queries in your document.
B. Both data providers must have the same dimension values.
C. Data values from each linked dimension must have a common format.
D. Object name from different universes in both data providers must be the same.
Ans: A,B,C

65. Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A. Order Breaks
B. Vertical Breaks
C. Crosstab Breaks
D. Horizontal Breaks
Ans: B,D

66. Which method should you use to activate data tracking?
A. Select the "Track" button on the toolbar.
B. In the Query panel, enable "Keep History".
C. In the InfoView Preferences, enable "Track Data Changes".
D. Right-click the column in the report and select "Activate Data Tracking".
Ans: A

67. Which two search criteria are valid when using Delegated List of Values? (Choose two.)
A. a*
B. *a
C. a%
D. %a
Ans: A,B

68. For which tasks do you use an If() function?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. To conditionally show rows in a block
B. To conditionally execute a scheduled report
C. To display dynamically grouped values
D. To display a dynamic list of values
Ans: A,C

69. You need to create a report that compares data to a reference data set. You create the report and activate the track data option. The report correctly indicates the changes in the data; however when you make another change to the report, the display no longer indicates any data tracking. What actions could have caused this behavior?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.
A. You drilled outside the scope of analysis.
B. You activated query drill mode.
C. You added a report break.
D. You added a chart to the report.
Ans: A,B

70. To which destinations can you send a Web Intelligence document (WID) through InfoView of BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question
A. Broadcast Agent
B. Business Objects Inbox
C. FTP
D. Email
E. File Server
Ans: B,C,D

71. Which three calculations can you use in a measure object in Web Intelligence? (Choose three.)
A. Min
B. Max
C. Count
D. Count All
Ans: A,B,C

72. Which three object types can you use in a Web Intelligence universe query? (Choose three.)
A. Class
B. Detail
C. Measure
D. Dimension
E. User Defined
Ans: B,C,D

73. You use the Last Refresh Date cell from the Templates in the Report Manager on your report page. You then reformat the cell as Tuesday, January 22, 2008. What is the result when you edit the formula, using the Formula toolbar, to concatenate the string "Last Refresh Date: " and the LastExecutiondate() function?
A. The cell reads "Last Refresh Date: 1/22/08".
B. The "Computation Error" error message is displayed.
C. The "Incompatible Data Types" error message is displayed.
D. The cell reads "Last Refresh Date: {Tuesday, January 22, 2008}".
Ans: A

74. You need to create a report displaying a year-to-date aggregation on sales revenue across all months. The report should be sectioned on Region. Additionally, you would like to reset the running aggregation to restart for each Region. Which syntax should you use to accomplish this task?
A. =RunningSum([Sales Revenue], Region)
B. =RunningTotal([Sales Revenue], Region)
C. =RunningSum([Sales Revenue] ; ([Region]))
D. =RunningTotal([Sales Revenue], Reset[Region])
Ans: C

75. Which method should you use to see report filters?
A. Right-click the report and select "Show Filter Pane"
B. On the toolbar, click the "Show/Hide Filter Pane" button
C. In the Filters panel, enable the "Show Report Filters" option
D. In InfoView Preferences, enable the "Show Report Filters" option
Ans: B

76. Which three methods can you use to apply a section in the Web Intelligence Rich Client? (Choose three.)
A. Click the "Set Master" button in the toolbar.
B. Drag the column to be sectioned outside the block.
C. Select the column; select Reporting Menu Option and then select "Set As Section".
D. Right-click the column on which you want to create a section. From the drop-down menu, select "Set As Section".

Ans: B,C,D

77. Which scenarios should you use breaks for? (Choose two.)
A. Generating subtotals in one table block
B. Breaking the table into multiple table blocks
C. Grouping repeated values in one table block
D. Generating running sum in multiple table blocks
Ans: A,C

78. Which two character functions can modify character string and return the word "Department" from the string "Department Fast Foods"? (Choose two.)
A. Pos()
B. SubStr()
C. Length()
D. Replace()
Ans: B,D

79. Which two options can you change when using Quick Display Mode? (Choose two.)
A. Limit Query Results
B. Sample Query Results
C. Vertical Records Per Page
D. Horizontal Records Per Page
Ans: C,D

80. Which three features can you use in Interactive View mode of BusinessObjects Web Intelligence XI 3.0? (Choose three.)
A. Sort
B. Filters
C. Format Cell
D. Merge Dimensions
Ans: A,B,C

65 Top SAP BI/BW Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 65 SAP BI/BW multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

SAP BI/BW Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. The following transactions are relevant to the data sources in an SAP BW source system.
A. RSA3
B. RSA4
C. RSA5
D. RSA6
Ans: A,C,D

2. True or False? A reference characteristic will use the SID table and master data table of the referred characteristic.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

3. The following statements are not true about navigational attributes.
A. An attribute of an info object cannot be made navigational if the attribute-only flag on the attribute info object has been checkeD.
B. Navigational attributes can be used to create aggregates.
C. It is possible to make a display attribute to navigational in an info cube data without deleting all the data from the info cubE.
D. Once an attribute is made navigational in an info cube, it is possible to change it back to a display attribute if the data has been deleted from the info cubE.
Ans: D

4. True or False? It is possible to create a key figure without assigning currency or unit.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

5. The following statements are true for compounded info objects.
A. An info cube needs to contain all info objects of the compounded info object if it has been included in the info cubE.
B. An info object cannot be included as a compounding object if it is defined as an attribute only.
C. An info object can be included as an attribute and a compounding object simultaneously.
D. The total length of a compounded info object cannot exceed 60.
Ans: A,B,D

6. The following statements are true for an info cubE.
A. Each characteristic of info cube should be assigned to at least one dimension.
B. One characteristic can be assigned to more than one dimensions.
C. One dimension can have more than one characteristiC.
D. More than one characteristic can be assigned to one line item dimension.
Ans: A,C

7. The following statements are true for info cubes and aggregates.
A. Requests cannot be deleted if info cubes are compresseD.
B. A request cannot be deleted from an info cube if that request (is compresseD. in the aggregates.
C. Deleting a request from the cube will delete the corresponding request from the aggregate, if the aggregate has not been compresseD.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C

8. The following statements are true regarding the ODS request deletion.
A. It is not possible to delete a request from ODS after the request has been activateD.
B. Deleting an (inactive) request will delete all requests that have been loaded into the ODS after this request was loadeD.
C. Deleting an active request will delete the request from the change log tablE.
D. None of the abovE.
Ans: C

9. The following statements are true for aggregates.
A. An aggregate stores data of an info cube redundantly and persistently in a summarized form in the databasE.
B. An aggregate can be built on characteristics or navigational attributes from the info cubE.
C. Aggregates enable queries to access data quickly for reporting.
D. None of the abovE.
Ans: A,B,C

10. True or False? If an info cube has active aggregates built on it, the new requests loaded will not be available for reporting until the rollup has been completed successfully.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

11. What is the primary purpose of having multi-dimensional data models?
A. To deliver structured information that the business user can easily navigate by using any possible combination of business terms to show the KPIs.
B. To make it easier for developers to build applications, that will be helpful for the business users.
C. To make it easier to store data in the database and avoid redundancy.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A

12. The following statements are true for partitioning.
A. If a cube has been partitioned, the E table of the info cube will be partitioned on timE.
B. The F table of the info cube is partitioned on request.
C. The PSA table is partitioned automatically with several requests on one partition.
D. It is not possible to partition the info cube after data has been loaded, unless all the data is deleted from the cubE.
E. All are correct.
Ans: E

13. The following statements are true for OLAP CACHE.
A. Query navigation states and query results are stored in the application server memory.
B. If the same query has been executed by another user the result sets can be used if the global cache is activE.
C. Reading query results from OLAP cache is faster than reading from the databasE.
D. Changing the query will invalidate the OLAP cache for that query.
E. All are correct.
Ans: E

14. The following statements are true about the communication structurE.
A. It contains all the info objects that belong to an info sourcE.
B. All the data is updated into the info cube with this structurE.
C. It is dependent on the source system.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,B

15. The following statements are untrue about ODSs.
A. It is possible to create ODSs without any data fields.
B. An ODS can have a maximum of 16 key fields.
C. Characteristics and key figures can be added as key fields in an ODS.
D. After creating and activating, an export data source is created automatically.
Ans: A,C

16. Which of the following describes a Result Set query?
A. A prequery
B. A query using flat tables (ODS object or InfoObject)
C. A nested query where the results of a first query are used as entry values for a second query
D. There is no such thing in SAP BW
E. None of the above

Ans: C

17. Which of the following is correct about Profile Generator?
A. It is a tool to automatically generate Authorization Profile
B. It is a tool existing in OLTP systems only
C. Complete the Administrator work with extra tasks to set up authorization
D. A tool that can be used by end users to modify their authorizations
E. None of the above

Ans: A

18. What do the SAP BW content extractors provide?
A. Generic extractors
B. Custom extractors
C. There is no such thing in SAP BW content
D. Data sources that can be activated for all applications
E. None of the above

Ans: D

19. Using PSA as a loading process, which of the following methodologies can be used?
A. To PSA, then to the data target
B. To PSA only
C. To data target only
D. To PSA and data target in parallel
E. None of the above

Ans: E

20. Which of the following is a supply of workbooks in SAP BW arranged according to ttopic areas?
A. An InfoSource
B. A channel
C. An InfoArea
D. An InfoCatalog
E. An InfoObject
Ans: B

21. What is the maximum number of key figures in an InfoCube?
A. 13
B. 85
C. 322
D. 233

Ans: D

22. Which of the following tools helps in the Web reporting area?
A. The Web agent
B. The front-page tool
C.The Web wizard
D. The query view

Ans: C

23. When are aggregates useful?
A. Always
B. They are useful only for key figures with aggregation SUM, MIN, or MAX
C. For reorganizations and realighnments
D. To increase the speed of loading during data update
E. None of the above

Ans: B

24. Which of the following is correct about SAP BW Statistics?
A. Data volume of the SAP BW Statistics cannot be anticipated
B. SAP BW Statistics are delivered as a part of the technical content
C. All SAP BW Statistics query objects start with OSAP
D. All SAP BW Statistics InfoObject catalogues start with OSAP
E. SAP BW Statistics is automatically activated

Ans: B

25. In FI/SL we can create a ledger based on what type of tables?
A. Aggregate tables
B. InfoCube level tables
C. Line-item level tables
D.Summarization level tables
E. Total tables

Ans: E


26. Select the correct statements about the steps executed by a change run.
A. The steps activate the new master data and hierarchy data changes.
B. All aggregates are realigned and recalculateD.
C. Aggregates containing navigational attributes are realigned and recalculated for the master data changes.
D. The steps delete the 'A' (active) records for which the 'M' (modifieD. records exist from master data tables, and makes all modified records activE.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C,D

27. Key figures that are set for exception aggregation MIN or MAX in an aggregate cause the aggregates to be completely rebuilt for each change run alignment.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

28. If special characters are not defined in transaction RSKC in BW then:
A. These characters cannot be loaded into BW at all.
B. These characters can only be loaded into text fields.
C. These characters can be loaded into attributes and texts.
D. BW won't be able to generate the SIDs for these characters because all the fields where SIDs are generated cannot be loadeD.
E. None of the abovE.
Ans: B,D

29. A change run updates the 'E' table of the aggregates while doing the alignment for changes in the master datA.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

30. Select the correct statements related to the control parameters for a data transfer in table ROIDOCPRMS in the BW source system.
A. The field MAXSIZE is the maximum number of records which can be transferred to BW in a single packet.
B. The field MAXSIZE is the size in KB which is used to calculate the number of records per data packet.
C. MAXLINES is the maximum number of records which can be transferred to BW per data loaD.
D. If the number of data records per packet exceeds MAXLINES value the extraction process fails..
Ans: B

31. Identify the differences between an Infoset and a Multiprovider.
A. Both Multiproviders and Infosets can contain all the info providers in BW.
B. Queries built on Multiproviders use 'union' and queries on Infosets use 'join' to retrieve data from different info providers.
C. Both Multiproviders and Infosets do not have data, but data is accessed from the basic info providers used in these objects.
D. None of the abovE.
Ans: B,C

32. Select the correct statements about the OLAP Cache Monitor in BW.
A. The transaction for the OLAP Cache Monitor is RSRCACHE.
B. If the persistent mode is inactive then the cache is inactive and query results will not be cached in memory.
C. A 'read flag' is set in the Cache Monitor when data is read from the cachE.
D. When new data is loaded into the info provider which the query is built on, the cache for that query is invalidateD.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C,D

33. Select the correct statements about ODS settings.
A. Performance of the ODS activation improves when the BEx reporting flag is switched to off.
B. Overwriting a data record is not allowed if the 'unique' data record flag is set.
C. Data targets are updated from the ODS regardless of the ODS activation status.
D. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,B

34. It is not possible to activate an ODS which contains a request from a full load and a Delta Initialization load of the same data sourcE.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

35. Select the correct statements regarding data deletion settings in an InfoPackagE.
A. It is possible to set an InfoPackage to delete all the data in an InfoCube during the loads.
B. Only uncompressed data can be set to be deleted from the cube in an InfoPackage during the loads.
C. Deletion settings can be done only for basic InfoCubes.
D. Data deletion settings in an InfoPackage are possible only for full loads.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C

36. Select the correct statements about parallel processing in Multiproviders.
A. Multiprovider queries create one process per info provider involved and are processed parallel by default.
B. It is not possible to make Multiprovider queries run sequential.
C. Multiprovider queries create a parent process which provides a synchronization point to collect the overall result from other sub processes.
D. Parallel processing is always faster than sequential processing in Multiproviders.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: A,C

37. Select the correct statements about the ALPHA conversion routine in BW.
A. An ALPHA conversion routine is assigned to a characteristic info object automatically when it is createD.
B. An ALPHA conversion routine is used to convert characteristic values from 'external to internal' values only.
C. Conversion is done on alphabets and numeric input values.
D. An ALPHA conversion routine removes the spaces on the right side of numeric values and right aligns them.
E. The left side of the numeric input values are filled with zeros.
Ans: A,D,E

38. Select the correct statements related to navigational attributes.
A. It is better to avoid using navigational attributes from a query performance point of view.
B.If a navigational attribute is used in an aggregate, the aggregate needs to be adjusted every time there is a change in the values of this attributE.
C. An attribute included as a characteristic in the InfoCube has the same effect as being used as a navigational attribute in the cubE.
D. A navigational attribute can be made to display an attribute without removing data from the InfoCubE.
E. None of the abovE.
Ans: A,B,D

39. A 'Check for Referential Integrity' can only be possible for information sources with flexible updating.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

40. Select the correct statements about physical partitioning in BW.
A. New partitions on F table of an InfoCube are created during data loads to the InfoCubE.
B. An E fact table is created when activating an InfoCube with a number of partitions corresponding to the partition value rangE.
C. If a cube is not partitioned before populating with data, it is not possible to partition the cube without removing all the datA.
D. PSA table partitions can contain more than one request.
E. All of the abovE.
Ans: E

41. Identify the statement(s) that is/are truE. A change run...
A. Activates the new Master data and Hierarchy data
B. Aggregates are realigned and recalculated
C. Always reads data from the InfoCube to realign aggregates
D. Aggregates are not affected by change run
Ans: A,B

42. Which statement(s) is/are true about Multiproviders?
A. This is a virtual Infoprovider that does not store data
B. They can contain InfoCubes, ODSs, info objects and info sets
C. More than one info provider is required to build a Multiprovider
d It is similar to joining the data tables
Ans: A,B

43. The structure of the PSA table created for an info source will bE...
A. Featuring the exact same structure as Transfer structure
B. Similar to the transfer rules
C. Similarly structured as the Communication structure
D. The same as Transfer structure, plus four more fields in the beginning
Ans: D

44. In BW, special characters are not permitted unless it has been defined using this transaction:
A. rrmx
B. rskc
C. rsa15
D. rrbs
Ans: B

45. Select the true statement(s) about info sources:
A. One info source can have more than one source system assigned to it
B. One info source can have more than one data source assigned to it provided the data sources are in different source systems
C. Communication structure is a part of an info source
D. None of the above
Ans: A,C

46. Select the statement(s) that is/are true about the data sources in a BW system:
A. If the hide field indicator is set in a data source, this field will not be transferred to BW even after replicating the data source
B. A field in a data source won't be usable unless the selection field indicator has been set in the data source
C. A field in an info package will not be visible for filtering unless the selection field has been checked in the data source
D. All of the above
Ans: A,C

47. Select the statement(s) which is/are true about the 'Control parameters for data transfer from the Source System':
A. The table used to store the control parameters is ROIDOCPRMS
B. Field max lines is the maximum number of records in a packet
C. Max Size is the maximum number of records that can be transferred to BW
D. All of the above
Ans: A

48. The indicator 'Do not condense requests into one request when activation takes place' during ODS activation applies to condensation of multiple requests into one request to store it in the active table of the ODS.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

49. Select the statement(s) which is/are not true related to flat file uploads:
A. CSV and ASCII files can be uploaded
B. The table used to store the flat file load parameters is RSADMINC
C. The transaction for setting parameters for flat file upload is RSCUSTV7
D. None of the above
Ans: C

50. Which statement(s) is/are true related to Navigational attributes vs Dimensional attributes?
A. Dimensional attributes have a performance advantage over Navigational attributes for queries
B. Change history will be available if an attribute is defined as navigational
C. History of changes is available if an attribute is included as a characteristic in the cube
D. All of the above
Ans: A,C

51. When a Dimension is created as a line item dimension in a cube, Dimensions IDs will be same as that of SIDs.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

52. Select the true statement(s) related to the start routine in the update rules:
A. All records in the data packet can be accessed
B. Variables declared in the global area is available for individual routines
C. Returncode greater than 0 will be abort the whole packet
D. None of the above
Ans: A,B,C

53. If a characteristic value has been entered in InfoCube-specific properties of an InfoCube, only these values can be loaded to the cube for that characteristiC.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

54. After any changes have been done to an info set it needs to be adjusted using transaction RSISET.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

55. Select the true statement(s) about read modes in BW:
A. Read mode determines how the OLAP processor retrieves data during query execution and navigation
B. Three different types of read modes are available
C. Can be set only at individual query level
D. None of the above
Ans: A,B

56. What are the primary reporting environments for SAP BW?
A. BEx Analyzer
B. BEx Access
C. Web browser
D. Windows Notepad
Ans: A, C

57. Which of the following types of links can be created from within the BEx Browser?
A. Folders
B. SAP transaction codes
C. Internet addresses
D. All of the above
Ans: A, C

58. True or False? You can insert your own HTML code with the Web Application Designer.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

59. What is the transaction code RSBBS to be used for?
A. Listing current BW users
B. Creating a bulletin board system for reports
C. Maintaining sender-receiver assignments
D. Reloading data into an InfoCube
Ans: C

60. Which of the following is true of the Business Explorer (BEx) Analyzer?
A. It is integrated with Microsoft Excel.
B. It allows multiple queries to be embedded into a single worksheet/workbook.
C. It can refresh queries automatically when a workbook is openeD.
D. It has protection to prevent changes to cell values.
e) All of the abovE.
Ans: E

61. Individual cell definitions can be created when a Query Definition has how many structures?
A. 0 Structures
B. 1 Structure
C. 2 Structures
D. More than 2 structures
Ans: C

62. What is RRI?
A. A really-really-interesting acronym
B. Report-report-interfacing
C. A transaction code for creating new InfoCubes
Ans: B

63. Which of the following can be shared amongst query designers within a single InfoProvider?
A. Characteristic variables
B. Global structures
C. Restricted key figures
D. Technical names of a query
Ans: A, B, C

64. True or False? The reporting agent can be used to pre-calculate Web templates.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

65. A combination of characteristics and key figures can be displayed in any desired order by:
A. Activating the download scheduler
B. Switching a query definition to tabular mode
C. Placing key figures in the rows section of a query definition
D. Using scissors and duct tape
Ans: B

66. True or False? Characteristic variables cannot be created directly from the Query Designer tool.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

67. What SAP transaction code can access the reporting agent?
A. RSA1
B. AL08
C. RSRT
D. RSREP
Ans: A, D

68. The Web Application Designer (WAD. allows which of the following to be displayed in a Web browser?
A. Query results in a tablE.
B. A corporate logo
C. Bar charts.
D. Links to other reports.
e) All of the abovE.
Ans: E

69. A query that is not ready to be shared with other users should be saved to:
A. The BEx Browser
B. Favorites
C. Roles
D. A local PC
Ans: B

70. Characteristics found in a query definition can be restricted by:
A. Opening the administrator workbench
B. Changing the query properties within the query designer
C. Double-clicking on the characteristic in the query definition
D. Creating a calculated key figure
Ans: C

75 Top SAP HR Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 75 SAP HR multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

SAP HR Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1.  There are three structures in HR, which are Enterprise Structure, Personnel Structure and Organizational Structure.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

2. The following consideration(s) should be taken into account when defining the Enterprise Structure:
A. Clients are defined at the highest level of the Enterprise Structure.
B. Company codes are defined in Financial Accounting and must be country specific and can be used to help generate default values in employee master records.
C. Personnel Areas are defined in Human Resources and are assigned to one or more Company codes and can be used in defining authorizations.
D. Personnel Subareas are defined in Human Resources and are assigned to one Personnel Area only and can be used in defining authorizations.
Ans:

3. What elements make up the Enterprise Structure?
A. Client
B. Company code
C. Personnel Area
D. Personnel Subarea
Ans: A

4. The following consideration(s) should be taken into account when defining the Personnel Structure:
A. The highest level of the Personnel Structure is the Employee Group which is country specific and can be used to default values for employee master data records.
B. Employee groups are linked to the Enterprise Structure by being assigned to the Company code.
C. An Employee Subgroup can be assigned to one or more Employee Groups and used in defining authorizations.
D. Employee Subgroup can be used to define how an employee's payroll is processeD.
Ans: D


5. Organizational Structure includes which of the following areas?
A. Payroll area
B. Company code
C. Organizational units
D. Positions
Ans: C


6. The following is true about Payroll Accounting:A. Payroll Accounting is country specifiC.
B. Payroll Accounting is NOT country specifiC.
C. Payroll Accounting does not need time evaluation.
D. Only one payroll area can be run at a time.
Ans: A

7. The Payroll Accounting area includes which functions?
A. The Payroll Accounting area ensures that all employees who are paid with the same frequency, e.g., weekly, area accounted in the same payroll run.
B. The Payroll Accounting area defines the exact dates of the payroll perioD.
C. The Payroll Accounting area can be used as a selection criteria for Time Evaluation.
D. The Payroll Accounting area can be used for authorization check.
Ans: B

8. The Organizational Key is used for which of the following?
A. To provide a link to Organizational Unit in the Personnel Planning and Development Component (PD. when integration is active.
B. To define additional authorization checks.
C.  To group administrators together in on Org Key.
D. To provide a link to the Cost Center when the integration with PD is not active.
Ans: B

9. Personnel Area has which of the following functions?
A. A factor in generating default values
B. Personnel Area executes the payroll driver.
C.  Personnel Area can be used for selection criteria for reporting.
D. Personnel Area can be used for authorization checks.
Ans: C

10. In which Infotype are an employee's Enterprise and Personnel Structure assignment stored?
A. Basic Pay (IT0008)
B. Address (IT0006)
C. Organizational Assignment (IT0001)
D. Bank Details (IT0009)
Ans: C

11. The Organizational Assignment Infotype (IT0001) is used for which of the following purposes?
A. The Organizational Assignment Infotype assigns an employee to either the Enterprise Structure or the Personnel Structure.
B. IT0001 is used to allocate to the a particular frequency, e.g., bi-weekly
C.  IT0001 is used to provide the link to the Personnel Planning and Development Component (PD., if integration is active, through the Job Key
D.  IT0001 is used to allow one ore more cost centers to be assigned to the employee
Ans: B

12. The Personnel Control Record has which of the following functions?
A. The Personnel Control Record determines the dates of the current payroll perioD.
B. . The Personnel Control Record defines retroactive accounting periods.C. The Personnel Control Record locks all master data and time data records during the payroll cycle.
D. The Personnel Control Record defines the earliest retroactive accounting period for the payroll areA.
Ans: A

13. Which of the following statements about integration between PA & PD are valid?
A. Integration between PA and PD is set by filling the field PLOGI ORGA with an X, not other setting is requireD.
B. By specifying the Position with integration between PA and PD is active, the associated Organizational Units and Jobs are automatically assigned to the Organizational Assignment Infotype (IT0001).
C. Employee Groups and Employee Subgroup can be defaulted into theOrganizational Assignment Infotype (IT0001) when integration between PA and PD is active.
D.  Personnel areas and Personnel Subareas can be defaulted into the Organizational Assignment Infotype.
Ans: A

14. Which of the following apply to Personnel Subareas?
A. Personnel Subareas defines the country grouping.
B. Personnel Subareas defines the currency and language.
C.  Personnel Subareas defines groupings for work schedules, absences and leave types.
D. Personnel Subareas defines the public holiday calendar.
Ans: B

15. Which of the following applies to a feature in SAP HR?
A. It is used to valuate wage types.
B.  It controls system processes.
C.  It controls batch processing.
D. It can be accessed by transaction code PE03.
Ans: B

16. Which of the following are groupings for Employee Subgroups?
A. Primary Wage Types
B. Personnel Calculation Rule
C.  Administrators
D. Collective Agreement Provision (CAP)
Ans: B

17. The Payroll Accounting area includes which functions?
A. The Payroll Accounting area ensures that all employees who are paid with the same frequency, e.g., weekly, area accounted in the same payroll run.
B. The Payroll Accounting area defines the exact dates of the payroll perioD.
C. . The Payroll Accounting area can be used as a selection criteria for Time Evaluation.
D. The Payroll Accounting area can be used for authorization check.
Ans: B

18. What elements make up the Enterprise Structure?
A. Client
B. Company code
C. Personnel Area
D. Personnel Subarea
Ans: A

19. The following is true about Payroll Accounting:
A. Payroll Accounting is country specifiC.
B. Payroll Accounting is NOT country specifiC.
C.  Payroll Accounting does not need time evaluation.
D. Only one payroll area can be run at a time.
Ans: A

20. Organizational Structure includes which of the following areas?
A. Payroll area
B. Company code
C. Organizational units
D. Positions
Ans: C

21. What is SAP MMC good for?
A. Starting SAP instances
B.  Viewing developer traces
C. Stopping SAP instances
D.  Deploying SAPGUI
Ans:

22. The following is true about single sign-on using Kerberos 5 (Kerberos 5 SSO):
A. It's only supported in UNIX environments
B.  It provides encrypted authentication
C. It works in all Windows platforms
D.  It's an SAP add-on available as of Web AS 6.10
Ans: B

23. True or False: Since the release of SQL Server 2000, database integrity checks -- and DBCC CHECKDB in particular-- are a thing of the past in SAP.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B


24. What does report RSUSR003 do?
A. Lists logon system settings
B. Reports if passwords for SAP* accounts have not changed
C.  Reports if passwords for DDIC are trivial
D. All of the above
Ans: D

25. To prevent the use of common password combinations, a system can be set up to include:
A. A list of forbidden passwords in table USR40
B. Instance profile parameter "login/min_password_digits"
C.  A list of forbidden passwords in table USR04.
D. No additional configuration, as SAP only allows complex passwords
Ans:

26. After a new installation of R/3 Enterprise, the system has a temporary license. How long does this license last?
A. Four months
B. Four weeks
C.  Four days
D. Fourteen days
Ans: B

27. What is CUA?
A. It's the Control Upgrade Administration program, used during an SAP upgrade.
B. It stands for Central User Administration, where a central client manages all user accounts.
C. Both
D. Noneofthese
Ans: B

28. To prevent having to adjust output devices (e.g. print queue definitions) in every system each time they are transported from one system to another, an administrator can:
A. Set up a logical spool server by the same name in the source system and the target systems
B. Set up all printers to use "__DEFAULT" as the host printer
C. Both
D. Noneofthese
Ans: A

29. True or False? In order to read developer traces you have to go the operating system because SAP does not have a way to do this within the application.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

30. How can the logon screen be modified to include informational text, such as the company name, address, the system role, etC.?
A. Run transaction SE61, create object ZLOGIN_SCREEN_INFO and enter the desired text.
B. Ask SAP to modify the login screen for you.
C. Using a C or C++ recompile SAPGUI.exe with the new text.
D. Noneofabove
Ans: A

31. True or False? MS-SQL Server can be installed using all the delivered default settings. Everything is controlled within the application, so SAP requires only a database engine to work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B


32. True or False? MS-SQL Server can be installed using all the delivered default settings. Everything is controlled within the application, so SAP requires only a database engine to work.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B


33. What SAP transaction can assist in detecting I/O bottlenecks?
A. ST22
B. ST06
C. OS06
D. ST10
Ans:

34. What does transaction SPAM do?
A. It configures the system to block spam e-mail in the business workplace.
B. Itdefines and import support package queues.
C. It displays the support packages that have been imported into the system.
D. Nothing. It's not an SAP transaction.
Ans:

35. If an SAP instance does not start after making changes to the instance profile via RZ10, what is the best course of action?
A. Restore the database from the last full backup.
B. Edit the profile at the operating system level and manually change it back to the way it was. Then, restart the instance and correct the problem via RZ10.
C. Copy the instance profile from a working system into the affected system.
D. Log a trouble ticket at the SAP Support Portal.
Ans: B

36. Which of the following are possible ways to display the R/3 Kernel patch of a system?
A. Run SM51 and click Release Notes
B. Run disp+work –version at the OS level
C. Run SPAM, choose Imported Support Packages and click Display
D. Run SQ01 and click Kernel Patches
Ans:

37. What does report RSUSR003 do?
A. Lists logon system settings
B. Reports if passwords for SAP* accounts have not changed
C. Reports if passwords for DDIC are trivial
D.  All of the above
Ans: D

38. What SAP transaction can assist in detecting I/O bottlenecks?
A. ST22
B. ST06
C. OS06
D. ST10
Ans:

39. . If an SAP instance does not start after making changes to the instance profile via RZ10, what is the best course of action?
A. Restore the database from the last full backup.
B.  Edit the profile at the operating system level and manually change it back to the way it was. Then, restart the instance and correct the problem via RZ10.
C. Copy the instance profile from a working system into the affected system.
D. Log a trouble ticket at the SAP Support Portal.
Ans: B

40. The following is true about single sign-on using Kerberos 5 (Kerberos 5 SSO):
A. It's only supported in UNIX environments
B. It provides encrypted authentication
C. It works in all Windows platforms
D. It's an SAP add-on available as of Web AS 6.10
Ans: B

41.  A Work Schedule Rule comprises of the following elements:
A.  Public Holidays
B.  Daily Work Schedules
C.  Planned Working Time
D.  Break Schedules
E.  Daily Work Schedule Variants
Ans: B,D,E

42.  The different methods for transferring employee time data to the SAP system are:
A.  Record only deviations to the work schedule

B.  Record only Substitutions
C.  Record Actual Times.
D.  Record only Absences from working time.
E.  Record exceptions to the work schedule
Ans: C,E

43.  different views in TMW?
A.  team view
B.  multi person view
C.  multi day view
D.  one day view
E.  one day view
Ans: B,C,D

44.  The following are the options available in SAP Time Management:
A.  Incentive Wages
B.  Shift Planning
C.  CATS
D.  Time Recording
E.  None of these
Ans: B,C,D

45.  What is the main switch for integration of OM with PA?
A.  PLOGI ORGA
B.  PLOGI PLOGI
C.  PLOGI PAOM
Ans: A

46.  Public Holidays can have  the following characteristics:
A.  Fixed Date
B.  Special Holidays
C.  Specific Date and Day of the week
D.  Distance to Easter
E.  Movable Holidays
Ans: C,D

47.  A is the key for which object type?
A.  cost center
B.  assigning group
C.  person
D.  position
E.  work center
Ans: E

48.  secondary Incoming wage types is ?
A.  /z
B.  /A
C.  /0
D.  /1
E.  /i
Ans: A

49.  Elements of the enterprise structure?

A.  CLIENT
B.  COMPANY CODE
C.  PERSONAL SUBAREA
D.  EMPLOYEE SUBGROUP
E.  EMPLOYEE GROUP
Ans: B,C

50.  Which feature that determine the administrator group ?
A.  ABKRS
B.  TRAIF
C.  MOLGA
D.  PERSK
E.  PINCH
Ans: E

51.  1.  SAP E-recruiting Can be used as
A.  As a standalone application

B.  As a standalone application Integrated into the backend system
C.  ERP Installation
D.  B & C
E.  A,B&C
Ans: E

52. Where is an employee's work schedule stored?
A.  in the optional working time infotype


B.  in the planned working time infotype

C.  in the normal working time infotype
D.  in the monitoring of tasks infotype
Ans: B

53. The E-recruiting solution enables you to recruite english speaking employees? ( T/F )

A.  True
B.  False
Ans: B

54. How many number of subtypes are present in Compensation Package Offer Infotype?

A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Ans: A

55. Pick the "True" statements regarding "Check List for the Global assignment Change

A.Check list items infotype is 0704
B.Check list items infotype is 0705
C.Check list items infotype is 0706
D.Check list items infotype is 0707
E.Check list items infotype is 0703
Ans: B

56. Statement A: "Business event groups serve to structure the catalog. They can contain multiple hierarchy levels."
Statement B: "Business event types carry almost all of the information relevant to the business event. They form the basic structure of the catalog.

A.A is correct and B is wrong
B.A is wrong and B is correct
C.Both A and B are wrong
D.Both A and B are correct
Ans: D

57. 360 feedback appraisals: appraisals that draw on diverse sources(supervisors, peers and self-appraisals). True or False?

A.  True
B.  False
Ans: A

58. You must start one report for the gross payroll and one for the net payroll for each payroll perioD.

A.  True
B.  False
Ans: B

59. What is assigned in the payroll status infotype(0003) to personnel numbers with errors ?

A.Status indicator
B.Correction indicator
C.Negative indicator
D.Positive indicator
Ans: B

60. Communication between time recording systems and HR time management takes place via standard interface ?

A.WAP
B.PDC
C.CATS
D.ESS
Ans: B

61. What is SAP MMC good for?
A. Starting SAP instances
B. Viewing developer traces
C. Stopping SAP instances
D. Deploying SAPGUI
Ans:  A

62. The following is true about single sign-on using Kerberos 5 (Kerberos 5 SSO):
A. It's only supported in UNIX environments
B. It provides encrypted authentication
C. It works in all Windows platforms
D. It's an SAP add-on available as of Web AS 6.10
Ans:  B

63. True or False: Since the release of SQL Server 2000, database integrity checks -- and DBCC CHECKDB in particular-- are a thing of the past in SAP.
A. True
B. False
Ans:B

64. What does report RSUSR003 do?
A. Lists logon system settings
B. Reports if passwords for SAP* accounts have not changed
C. Reports if passwords for DDIC are trivial
D. All of the above
Ans:  D

65. To prevent the use of common password combinations, a system can be set up to include:
A. A list of forbidden passwords in table USR40
B. Instance profile parameter "login/min_password_digits"
C. A list of forbidden passwords in table USR04.
D. No additional configuration, as SAP only allows complex passwords
Ans:  B

66. After a new installation of R/3 Enterprise, the system has a temporary license. How long does this license last?
A. Four months
B. Four weeks
C. Four days
D. Fourteen days
Ans:B

67. What is CUA?
A. It's the Control Upgrade Administration program, used during an SAP upgrade.
B. It stands for Central User Administration, where a central client manages all user accounts.
Ans:B

68. To prevent having to adjust output devices (e.g. print queue definitions) in every system each time they are transported from one system to another, an administrator can:
A. Set up a logical spool server by the same name in the source system and the target systems
B. Set up all printers to use "__DEFAULT" as the host printer
Ans:A

69. True or False? In order to read developer traces you have to go the operating system because SAP does not have a way to do this within the application.
A. True
B. False
Ans:  B

70. How can the logon screen be modified to include informational text, such as the company name, address, the system role, etC.?
A. Run transaction SE61, create object ZLOGIN_SCREEN_INFO and enter the desired text.
B. Ask SAP to modify the login screen for you.
C. Using a C or C++ recompile SAPGUI.exe with the new text.
Ans:A

71. True or False? MS-SQL Server can be installed using all the delivered default settings. Everything is controlled within the application, so SAP requires only a database engine to work.
A. True
B. False
Ans:B

72. What SAP transaction can assist in detecting I/O bottlenecks?
A. ST22
B. ST06
C. OS06
D. ST10
Ans:C

73. What does transaction SPAM do?
A. It configures the system to block spam e-mail in the business workplace.
B. It defines and import support package queues.
C. It displays the support packages that have been imported into the system.
D. Nothing. It's not an SAP transaction.
Ans:  B

74. If an SAP instance does not start after making changes to the instance profile via RZ10, what is the best course of action?
A. Restore the database from the last full backup.
B. Edit the profile at the operating system level and manually change it back to the way it was. Then, restart the instance and correct the problem via RZ10.
C. Copy the instance profile from a working system into the affected system.
D. Log a trouble ticket at the SAP Support Portal.
Ans:B

75. Which of the following are possible ways to display the R/3 Kernel patch of a system?
A. Run SM51 and click Release Notes
B. Run disp+work –version at the OS level
C. Run SPAM, choose Imported Support Packages and click Display
D. Run SQ01 and click Kernel Patches
Ans:A

76. The following transactions are relevant to the data sources in an SAP BW source system.
A. RSA3
B. RSA4
C. RSA5
D. RSA6
Ans: C

77. True or False? A reference characteristic will use the SID table and master data table of the referred characteristiC.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

78. The following statements are not true about navigational attributes.
A. An attribute of an info object cannot be made navigational if the attribute-only flag on the attribute info object has been checkeD.
B. Navigational attributes can be used to create aggregates.
C. It is possible to make a display attribute to navigational in an info cube data without deleting all the data from the info cube.
D. Once an attribute is made navigational in an info cube, it is possible to change it back to a display attribute if the data has been deleted from the info cube.
Ans: D

79. True or False? It is possible to create a key figure without assigning currency or unit.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

80. The following statements are true for an info cube.
A. Each characteristic of info cube should be assigned to at least one dimension.
B. One characteristic can be assigned to more than one dimensions.
C. One dimension can have more than one characteristiC.
D. More than one characteristic can be assigned to one line item dimension.
Ans: C

60 Top SAP SD Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 60 SAP SD multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

SAP SD Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. The individual physical tables in the SAP Information Warehouse are called what?
A.Key figures
B.Characteristics
C.Info structures
D.Time base
E.Period units
Ans: C

2. I need to be able to fulfill a customer requirement wherein Incoterms in the sales document header is not allowed to be different from the item. Where do I tweak the system to fulfill the requirement?
A.Need to configure copying control in sales
B.Need to configure common distribution channel
C.Need to configure common division
D.Need to configure the sales document type
E.Need to configure the item category
Ans: E

3. An organizational unit facilitating differentiation between the various stocks of a material within a plant ?
A.Shipping point
B.Storage location
C.Transportation planning point
D.Shipping condition
E.Plant
Ans: B

4. In SAP, it is possible to vary transaction currency in the header and item level of the sales document
A.True
B.False
Ans: B

5) When you enter a sales order you don’t need to specify the sales area immediately. If you don’t, where does the system automatically derive the sales area?
A.Material master
B.Customer master
C.Implementation guide (IMG)
D.Customer-material info record
E.Condition record
Ans: B

6.)When you are creating a sales order, the system tries to determine the plant from several sources. When checking the customer master data, which partner function does the system check for plant determination?
A.Sold-to party
B.Ship-to party
C.Payer
D.Bill-to part
Ans: B

7.)In controlling which order types are permitted for a particular sales area, configuration is not required if all order types are permitted in all sales areas.
A.True
B.False
Ans: A

8.)What part of the company is responsible for the type of shipping, the necessary shipping materials and the means of transport?
A.Sales Organization
B.Transportation planning point
C.Shipping condition
D.Shipping point
E.Warehouse
Ans: D

9)In availability check, what enterprise structure does the system use as basis?
A.Shipping point
B.Plant
C.Company code
D.Sales organization
E.Distribution channel
Ans: B

10.)In the unlikely event that your order contains different partner functions, where does the system check the information to know if the customer accepts delivery on a certain day and time?
A.Sold-to party
B.Ship-to party
C.Payer
D.Bill-to part
Ans: B

11. How is an Item Category determined in a Sales Document?
A. Order Type + Item Category Group
B. Order Type + Item Category Group + Higher Level Item Category
C. Order Type + Item Category Group + Higher Level Item Category + Usage
D. None of the above.
Ans: C

12. Which of the following are true for a Header Condition?
A. Header Conditions are applicable to the whole document
B. Header Conditions have to be entered only in Header Condition Screen
C. Header Conditions have no Access Sequence
D. All of the above
Ans: D

13. In a Business requirement the price of a material is based on the ‘Region’,  ‘Sales Org.’, ‘Distribution Channel’ . If you were to create a Condition Table for this scenario, the order in which the fields are arranged is?
A. Material, Sales Organization, Distribution Channel, Region
B. Material, Distribution Channel, Region, Sales Organization
C. Sales Organization, Distribution Channel, Region, Material
D. None of the above
Ans: C

14. If an Exclusive Indicator in an Access Sequence is activated, which of the following is true?
A. Does not allow the system to further search for condition Records if a valid Record is found
B. Will allow the system to take only the last condition Record even though there are other condition records prior to that
C. Excludes the system from carrying out pricing
D. None of the above.
Ans: A

15.  What is Credit Exposure?
A. Opens Sales Orders
B. Opens Sales Orders + Open Deliveries
C. Opens Sales Orders + Open Deliveries + Open Invoices
D. Opens Sales Orders + Open Deliveries + Open Invoices + Open Items
Ans: D

16. How does the system carry out Static Credit limit check?
A. Net Document Value + Credit Exposure
B. Net Document Value + Open Items
C. Net Document Value (with horizon period) + Credit Exposure
D. None of the above
Ans: A

17. Free Goods is supported for which of the following in SAP R/3?
A. Third Party Order
B. Deliveries without reference to order
C. Make-to Order
D. None of the above
Ans: C

18. In which processes of Consignment “Transfer Order for picking” is used?
A. Consignment Fill-up
B. Consignment Issue
C. Consignment Returns
D. Consignment Pick-up
Ans: A

19. A BoM consists of items A, B and C. Which of the following is not an Alternative BoM?
A. A
B. A+B
C. A+B+C
D. A+B+C+D
Ans: C

20.  What do you observe when a BoM is entered in Item Proposal and copied to a Sales Order?
A. BoM does not explode in Item Proposal but when copied to Order it explodes
B. BoM explodes in Item Proposal first and then is copied to Order
C. BoM does not explode in neither of the cases
D. None of the above
Ans: A

21.  What are the views related to Sales and Distribution in MMR?
A. Sales Org 1, 2 and Accounting
B. Sales Org 1, 2, Sales General/Plant, and Accounting
C. Sales Org 1, 2, Sales General/Plant, Foreign Trade Export and Sales Text
D. None of the above
Ans: C

22. If a material is created for Plant X, how is the same material defined for Plant Y? What is the process called?
A. MM02 and Extending the material
B. MM01 and Extending the material
C. MM01 and Creating the material
D. None of the above
Ans: B

23. What are FERT and HAWA?
A. Finished Product and Trading Product
B. Trading Product and Finished Product
C. Finished Product and Configurable Material
D. None of the above
Ans: A

24. For Material Master Record creation the important control functions like defining screen sequence, grouping field selection functions etc are based on?
A. Material Type and Industry Sector
B. Material Type and Item Category Group
C. Industry Sector and Item Category Group
D. None of the above
Ans: A

25.  When a Customer Master is changed, are the changes reflected in the already created documents? If yes/no, what are the fields?
A. Yes and all the changes in Customer master are copied to already created order
B. Yes but only address change is copied to already created order
C. No
D. None of the above
Ans: B

26. What is WM Transfer Order?
A. Request to Transfer material from storage location to customers place
B. Request to transfer material from one storage location to another storage location
C. Request to Transfer material from one place to another place within a storage location for picking purpose
D. None of the above
Ans: C

27. What are the effects of PGI?
A. Stock levels are reduced, Billing Due list updated
B. Material and Accounting Documents created
C. Status in Delivery changed and requirements reduced or eliminated
D. All of the above
Ans: D

28.  How is a delivery document created?
A. Using One shipping point only
B. More than One shipping point can be used
C. Warehouse Number
D. None of the above
Ans: A

29. What is the relationship between Sales Organization and Company Code?
A. One Sales Organization may be assigned to many company codes
B. Many Sales Organizations may be assigned to many company codes
C. Many Sales Organization may be assigned to one company codes
D. None of the above
Ans: C

30. What is Sales Line?
A. Sales Organization + Distribution Channel + Division
B. Sales Organization + Distribution Channel
C. Sales Organization + Division
D. None of the above
Ans: B

31. Billing of partial quantity is only possible if ?
A. Item Category has Billing relevance as A
B. Item Category has Billing relevance as B
C. Item Category has Billing relevance as K
D. None of the above
Ans: C

32. To cancel a Billing Document, which of the following is true?
A. A cancellation Billing Document Type is required
B. A Billing Document cannot be cancelled
C. It is cancelled by just changing the values in A Billing Document
D. None of the above
Ans: A

33. Which of the following are True for Returnable packaging material?
A. Returnable packaging material may be stored at Customer Location but remains the property of the company
B. It is not treated as Special Stock
C. If the Customer does not return the returnable packaging material by specified time then he may be billed for the same
D. Only A and C are correct
Ans: D

34. Which of the following are true for Inter-Company Sales Processing?
A. Delivering Plant must be assigned to Selling Sales Organization
B. Internal Customer Number must be assigned to the Selling Sales Organization
C. Inter-company Billing Document Type must be assigned to Order Type
D. All of the above
Ans: D

35. Which Standard Condition Type is linked to Payment Terms?
A. MWST
B. SKTO
C. RB00
D. No Condition Type is linked to Payment Terms
Ans: B

36. If a Sales Order determines two condition types which have Condition Class as B (price),how does the system react?
A. System picks the first price invalidating the other price
B. System picks the second price invalidating previous price
C. System does not recognize any price
D. None of the above
Ans: B

37. Rebate Condition Types have the condition Class as?
A. A – Discount/Surcharge
B. B – Price
C. C – Expense Reimbursement
D. Any of the above
Ans: C

38. Which of the following tables are correct?
A. VBUK – Header status, VBUP – Item Status, VBFA – Document Flow
B. VBRK – Header Billing Data, VBRP –Item Billing Data
C. LIKP – Delivery Header Data, LIPS – Delivery Item Data
D. All of the above
Ans: D

39. Which of the following are true for an Output Type?
A. Controls Print Program, SAPScript layout, medium, partner functions
B. Standard Output Types : Order Confirmation – BA00, Invoice – RD00
C. A and B above
D. None of the above
Ans: C

40. A Returns Order may lead to either a Credit Memo or a subsequent delivery free of charge. How do we avoid credit memo if the later is used?
A. Reject the Items in the Returns Order then copy to subsequent delivery free of charge Order
B. First create a credit memo and then cancel it and create subsequent delivery free of charge Order
C. It is not possible to stop credit memo
D. None of the above
Ans: A

41. What are common Distribution Channels and common Divisions?
A. Common Distribution Channels and Common Divisions are used to maintain same data for different Distribution channels and divisions
B. Combing a distribution channels and combining divisions
C. Treating all distribution channels and all divisions as same
D. None of the above of the above
Ans: A

42. If Invoice Correction Request is to be characterized as Debit Memo, what important changes do you suggest?
A. Document Category must be L (Debit Memo Request)
B. Billing Type would be a Debit Memo (L2)
C. Both A and B above
D. None of the above
Ans: C

43. How can you prevent Purchase Orders from duplication? That is same purchase Order should not be entered again?
A. By using “Check PO Number” field in the Order Type settings
B. Using Copy Control
C. Using Incompletion Procedure
D. None of the above
Ans: A

44. A business needs the cost of free of charge sub-items in Free goods to be transferred to Main Items. How is this possible?
A. By manually adding sub-item costs to main Items
B. By activating “Cumulate Cost” for main Item Category Controls in Copy Control
C. By specifying in Item Category controls
D. None of the above
Ans: B

45.  If a Condition Exclusion is activated for a Condition Type for which Condition Supplements are also specified, how would a system react?
A. System ignores Condition Exclusion
B. System Ignores Condition Supplements
C. It is not possible to set both simultaneously
D. None of the above
Ans: A

46. What is 3 system landscape?
A. Development Environment + Quality &Testing Environment + Production Environment in one server
B. Development Environment + Quality &Testing Environment + Production Environment in two servers
C. Development Environment + Quality &Testing Environment + Production Environment in three servers
D. None of the above
Ans: C

47. At which points in Sales and Distribution cycle the system can be set to carry out Automatic Credit Check?
A. Order level Only
B. Order and Delivery only
C. Order, Delivery and PGI
D. None of the above
Ans: C

48. What is a Delivery Group?
A. Group of delivery documents to be delivered
B. Group of Orders to be delivered together
C. It combines some or all items of an Order so as to deliver together
D. None of the above
Ans: C

49. What is the function of Strategy in Substitution reason?
A. Specifies whether a warning message is to be issued before material determination execution
B. Specifies whether the system should display the alternative items for selection
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans: B

50. In which Material Determination process is the “Material Entered” also should have material master record?
A. Material Entered need not have a material master record at all
B. Material Entered should always have a material master record
C. Only if the substitute item is displayed as sub item, material entered should have a material master record
D. None of the above
Ans: C

51. Which of the following is correct for Lean Warehouse Management System and Warehouse Management System (full fledged)?
A. In a Lean Warehouse Management System stock is maintained at Storage Location level only
B. In Warehouse Management System stock is maintained at bin levels
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of the above
Ans: C

52. When a new account group is created which of the configurations are correct?
A. New Account Group should be assigned to Partner Determination Procedure
B. New Account Group should be assigned to Partner Functions
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Ans: C

53. A status Group in an Incompletion Procedure specifies that if a document is incomplete it should block?
A. Delivery
B. Billing
C. A or B or both
D. None of the above
Ans: C

54. How is a Pricing Procedure determined?
A. Document Pricing Procedure + Customer Pricing Procedure
B. Document Pricing Procedure + Customer Pricing Procedure + Sales Area
C. Pricing procedure is directly assigned to Order Type
D. None of the above
Ans: B

55. If the Item numbers of a document have to be copied to another document as it is, then it is configured in?
A. Document Type
B. Item Category
C. Schedule Line Category
D. Copy Control
Ans: D

56. Backward scheduling is used?
A. To determine which Shipping Point is used for delivery
B. To determine whether delivery should be carried out or not
C. To determine Material Availability Date
D. None of the above
Ans: C

57. For carrying out Availability Check which of the following acts as main switch?
A. Schedule Line Category
B. Item Category
C. Requirements Class
D. None of the above
Ans: C

58. What is a Back Order?
A. Back dated Order
B. Old Order
C. Unconfirmed Order
D. None of the above
Ans: C

59. What is MALA in Storage Location Rule?
A. Shipping Conditions + Loading Group + Delivering Plant
B. Storage Conditions + Shipping Point + Delivering Plant
C. Storage Conditions + Loading Group + Delivering Plant
D. None of the above
Ans: B

60. For Delivery Item Category, if “Relevant for Picking” is not activated then?
A. Transfer Order is not required
B. Transfer Order is mandatory
C. Material is not relevant for delivery
D. None of the above
Ans: A

61. The main difference between Contracts and Scheduling Agreements is?
A. Contracts are Outline Agreements whereas Scheduling Agreements are not
B. Contracts have schedule Lines whereas Scheduling Agreements do not
C. Contracts do not have schedule Lines whereas Scheduling Agreements have
D. None of the above
Ans: C

62. Which of the following are correct?
A. Item category + MRP Type ? Schedule Line Category
B. Item category + MRP Type ? Requirements Type
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Only A is correct
Ans: C

63. Which of the following are correct for Reports?
A. May be used as Lists to view Orders, Quotations and can also be Work List such as Deliveries which have not been billed
B. Most of the Reports are managed using a special Tool called ABAP List Viewer (ALV) which allows to sum the totals, or sequence the columns etc.
C. Both A and B are correct
D. None of them are correct
Ans: C

64. If the Release order value exceeds Value Contract, how the system should respond may be controlled by?
A. Item Category
B. Document Type
C. Schedule Line Category
D. None of the above
Ans: A

65. In a third party order process where do you specify the Purchase Requisition Document Type?
A. Order Type
B. Item Category
C. Schedule Line Category
D. None of the above
Ans: C

66.  Which of the following tables are correct?
A. VBAK – Sales Header Data, VBAP – Sales  Item Data
B. VBEP – Schedule Line Data
C. KNA1 – Customer General Data, KNVV – Customer Sales Data
D. All of the above
Ans: D

67. An Account Group determines?
A. Fields, Partner Functions, One-Time Customers, Number Range
B. Sales Order Creation and Item Category Determination
C. Pricing Procedure
D. None of the above
Ans: A

68. What is a match Code?
A. Comparison key, to search for a Key based on some values of the record
B. It is a Transaction Code
C. A code used alternate to Company Code
D. None of the above
Ans: A

69. What is the relationship between Company Code and Credit Control Area?
A. One company code may be assigned to many Credit Control Area
B. Many company codes may be assigned to many Credit Control Area
C. Many company codes may be assigned to one Credit Control Area
D. None of the above
Ans: C

70. A customer buys the products from 3 Company Codes belonging to a group. How many Customer Numbers are required for this customer?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Ans: A

50 Top Siebel CRM Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Below are the list of top 50 Siebel CRM multiple choice questions and answers for freshers beginners and experienced pdf.

Siebel CRM Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which Siebel feature enables you to automatically apply a discount to a customer’ s order when the customer adds both a printer and replacement ink cartridges to their online shopping cart?
A. Siebel Workflow Policy Program
B. Action Sets
C. Siebel Assignment Manager
D. Rule Sets
Ans: B

2. You currently have a Siebel Operation step in a Workflow Process that updates SR priority from Low to High. You now want the Sub Process step to change the priority to Very High rather than High. How do you change this detail?
A. Double-click the Siebel Operation step in the Process Designer
B. Delete the step and replace it with a new Sub Process step
C. Right-click the Siebel Operation step in the Process Designer
D. Double-click the Sub Process step in the Process Designer
Ans: D

3. Which of the following is an Enterprise Component Group that should be enabled prior to running Siebel Workflow?
A. Workflow Process Batch Manager
B. Workflow Action Agent
C. Workflow Monitor Agent
D. Workflow Management
E. Workflow Process Manager
Ans: D

4. Which of the following is NOT an option with Siebel Workflow’ s Wait Step?
A. Pause a process for a specified amount of time
B. Pause a process until a specified runtime event occurs
C. Include a restart parameter in the process
D. Include a timeout parameter in the process
Ans: C

5. If an applet has five associated Rule Sets, and the first three rule sets will not return any data for the current user, but the last two rule sets will, how many rule sets are evaluated for this user?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5
Ans: A

6. How can you tell if your connectors in a Siebel Workflow process are successfully connecting the steps as you create the Workflow process? Choose two. A. The two ends of the connector will be white in color
B. By running the process using Process Simulator
C. By right-clicking the connector line
D. The two ends of the connector will be red in color
Ans: B,D

7. Which of the following describes .dx files?
A. Transaction files transferred between the Server and Mobile Client
B. Temporary files that are automatically purged upon application exit
C. Directory files used by Siebel to organize physical file directories
D. Log files used for troubleshooting EIM process errors
Ans: A

8. What is stored in the S_DOCK_TXN_LOG table in the Server Database?
A. Before and after images of data
B. A list of transactions performed while docked
C. All of the data that is changed during a remote session
D. Remote user information
Ans: A

9. In the first time set up of mobile users, what must you do before data can be loaded in the Mobile Client’ s local database?
A. Run the dev2prod.ksh script
B. Create the database schema for the local database
C. Copy the Siebel Database file to the mobile client
D. Copy the .cfg and .srf file from the server to the mobile client machine
Ans: B

10. Which server task creates the Docking\User directory on the Siebel Server for a new Mobile Client?
A. Transaction Router
B. Generate New Database
C. Synchronization Manager
D. Database Extract
Ans: D

11. What does the Transaction Merger server task do when it encounters a Duplicate Conflict? Choose two.
A. Merges the two records together into one record
B. Adds the duplicate record and sets a flag to indicate that duplicates exist
C. Does not add the duplicate record and logs the conflict in the remote status log
D. Notifies the mobile client of the duplicate
Ans: B,D

12. When does the Transaction Merger server task override the MRG: System Conflict Resolution system preference?
A. Never
B. When a Duplicate Conflict occurs
C. When an Update Conflict occurs
D. When a Delete Conflict occurs
Ans: D

13. What action is recommended if a mobile user is going to be unable to synchronize for an extended period of time (leave of absence, for example)?
A. Change the synchronization frequency
B. Modify the views assigned to the mobile client
C. Set a new effective end-date for the mobile client to deactivate it
D. Remove the mobile client’ s local database completely
Ans: C

14. When initially preparing your target environment for migration, which of the following tasks should you complete? Choose three.
A. Check out projects that were changed in development
B. Create user accounts
C. Install any required client software
D. Install database and server software
E. Copy the .srf file to server and clients
Ans: B,C,D

15. What is dataexp.exe used for when migrating environments?
A. To generate a data merge file that contains user and seed data
B. To create flat files containing data from non-EIM tables
C. To create flat files containing data from EIM tables
D. To generate a compressed copy of the source database
Ans: D

16. Which of the following must you do to reactivate a mobile client? Choose two.
A. Perform a database extract
B. Create the mobile client DOCKING sub-directory on the server
C. Add the server name to the DockConnString line of siebel.cfg
D. Remove the end date for the mobile client
Ans: A & D.

17. Which of the following tasks can you perform in the Catalog Manager?
A. Set permissions for Web Catalog items
B. Manage privileges and rights given to groups and users
C. Set authentication options
D. Manage Web groups and users
Ans: A

18. In workflow, using which of the following step you can invoke assignment manager
A. Business Service
B. Sub-Process
C. Siebel Operation
D. Decision Point
Ans: A

19. Which server component must be running for a siebel remote client to work:
A. Transaction Processor
B. Synchronization Manager
C. Transaction Router
D. Transaction Merger
Ans: B

20. You have a Workflow process that evaluates the age of Service Requests and updates the priority of Service Requests that are more than a week old. Which Siebel Workflow step type are you using to change the priority of the Service Request?
A. Siebel Update step
B. Siebel Operation step
C. Decision Point step
D. Sub Process step
Ans: B

21. The Expression Designer is used to define which of the following types of expressions?
A.Dynamic
B.Conditional
C.SQL
D.Rule
Ans: B,D

22. When an expression is validated, both the syntax and logic are checked.
A. True
B. False
Ans: b

23. At run-time, the system evaluates personalization expressions. Which of the following is NOT true of the evaluation results?
A.The view and applet displays because both view and applet expressions evaluate to True
B.The link to the view is not available even though the applet expression evaluates to True because the view expression evaluates to False
C.The view and applet displays even though the applet expression evaluates to False because the view expression evaluates to True
D.The link to the view is not available because both view and applet expressions evaluate to False
Ans: C

24. Personalization expressions override Responsibility in determining whether a user should see a view.
A. True
B. False
Ans: B

25. How are Personalization Expressions applied?
A.The Application administrator associates expressions with the appropriate Responsibility
B.A property is set on the appropriate view or applet
C.The Personalization administrator associates expressions with views and applets
Ans: C

26. Which of the following is NOT true of a rule set?
A.Consist of one or more rules which are evaluated in sequence
B.Defines an expression that is displayed in a salutation applet
C.Control the content of an applet based on personalization profile attributes, content attributes, and other factors
D.Defines an expression that acts as sort specification
Ans: D

27. Which of the following are actions that can be added to an action set? Pick THREE.
A.Invoke a method on a business service
B.Run a business service
C.Set a profile to a new value
D.Monitor an event
Ans: A,B,C

28. If an exclusion expression evaluates to True, that record is NOT included content, even if the inclusion expression evaluates to True.
A. True
B. False
Ans: A

29. Which of the following is NOT true of how rule sets are evaluated?
A.Evaluated in the specified sequence
B.Only evaluated if its conditional expression evaluates True and Start Date and End Date, if set, are appropriate
C.All rule sets are evaluated before determining content
Ans: C

30. Which of the following is true of Personal Salutations? Pick THREE
A.Appear at the top of the application home page
B.Scripted in rule sets
C.Salutation text can contain HTML tags to provide formatting
D.Can use only one rule per salutation
Ans: A,B,C

31. Siebel eConfigurator, ePricer, and eAdvisor are collectively known as what?
A. Siebel MidMarket Edition
B. Interactive Selling Suite
C. Siebel Employee Applications
D. Siebel Sales
Ans: B

32. Which entity represents a person external to your company?
A. Customer
B. Party
C. Contact
D. Person
Ans: C

33. Which entities always belong to a team? Choose three.
A. Activity
B. Opportunity
C. Contact 1
D. Account
E. Service Request
Ans: B,C,D

34. Which type of product is an internal application used by employees and partners?
A. Employee Application
B. Partner Application
C. Customer Application
D. Employee Partner Application
Ans: A

35. An Employee Application has the following characteristics? Choose two.
A. Used by employees only
B. Used by employees and partners
C. Internal application
D. Used by employees and customers
Ans: B,C

36. Marcel found out the area code of his contact, Céline, has changed from 912 to 440. Which of the following is the easiest way for him to change Céline’ s area code?
A. Find Céline’ s record in the My Contacts View, delete it, and create a new record
B. Find Céline’ s record in the My Contacts View, go to the detail applet, change the area code
C. Find Céline’ s record in the All Contacts Across Organizations View, delete her phone number from a primary list, and input the new one
D. Find Céline’ s record in the My Contacts View, delete her phone number from a primary list, and then input the new number
Ans: B

37. Which of the following objects is used to retrieve data from the database?
A. View
B. Business Object
C. Business Component
D. Database table
Ans: C

38. How many Business Components can a single list or form Applet reference?
A. Two (if using a toggle)
B. One
C. Unlimited
D. Eight
Ans: B

39. Complete this statement: A business object contains information about the _________
between business components.
A. Differences
B. Similarities
C. Shared properties
D. Relationships
Ans: D

40. Which of the following statements is true?
A.Form applet data comes from only one table
B.Form applet data may come from many tables and columns
C.Form applet data may come from many columns in a single table
D.Form applet data comes from only one column in a table
Ans: B

41.Complete the following statement. A set of related applets may be displayed in a __________.
A. Business object
B. View
C. Screen
D. Business component
Ans: B

42. Which applet type may simultaneously display more than one record?
A. List
B. Form
C. Child
D. Detail
Ans: A

43. On a Mobile Web Client using disconnected processing, how is HTML delivered to the browser?
A. The HTML is pulled from the Web cache on the Mobile Web Client
B. It is not possible for a disconnected client to receive Siebel HTML pages
C. The local Web Server with SWSE delivers the HTML to the browser
D. The Mobile Web Client must synchronize to receive the HTML from the Siebel Web Engine
Ans: C

46. What is the purpose of the Siebel Monitoring Account?
A. Used to monitor database capacity and alert DBA when approaching designated thresholds
B. Used to run Enterprise Server processes and components
C. Required to run Windows processes or start UNIX daemons
D. Required by Resonate Central Dispatch connection brokering software
Ans: D

47. Which of the following is NOT a valid task when installing and verifying the Enterprise and Siebel Servers?
A. Invoke the installation program and follow the installation steps
B. Run the install.ksh script
C. Verify that the Windows Service and Unix daemon process is started
D. Inspect the SESsetup.log file in the Siebel root directory
Ans: B

48. How might you verify repository data after installing the Database Server?
A. View the SESsetup.log file in the Siebel root directory
B. Verify that the Windows Service and Unix daemon process is started
C. Run the imprep.ksh script
D. Run a query to count the records in the S_VIEW table
Ans: D

49. What function does the Siebel Web Engine perform when it receives a URL with a Siebel
request?
A. Gathers templates and data and builds an HTML page
B. Displays the HTML page on the client’ s computer
C. Provides access to, and distributes load for Siebel Servers
D. Verifies that the client is using an acceptable browser
Ans: A

50. What happens when a user enters a URL for a Siebel application into a Web browser?
A. The Browser retrieves the appropriate templates and the Siebel Web Engine retrieves the data from the database to build the HTML page
B. The Siebel Web Engine recognizes the URL and passes it to the Web Server where the HTML page is built for the user
C. The Web Server retrieves the appropriate templates and the Siebel Web Engine retrieves the data from the database to build the HTML page
D. The Web Server recognizes the URL and passes it to the Siebel Web Engine where the HTML page is built for the user
Ans: D

51. Account is what kind of entity
A. Single Organization
B. Multiple Organization
C. Single User
D. Single Position
Ans: B

52. A potential client, partner and competitor is represented by which entity in Siebel
A. Contact
B. Account
C. Customer
D. Service Request
Ans: B

53. What are the different Business objects layers in Siebel, Choose 2
A. Business Object
B. Business Service
C. Business Component
D. Applet
Ans: A,C

54. In a view if you display an account form applet as the master and the opportunity list applet as the child then what is TRUE
A. Parent business component is used as Account
B. Child business component is used for Account
C. Parent business component is used as Opportunity
D. Child business component is used for Opportunity
Ans: A,D

55. Which of the following is TRUE in a view if there are two applets displayed one list and a detail.
A. It is based on two different views
B. It is based on two different Business Objects
C. It can use only one business component
D. It may use two business components
Ans: C

56. What does Rule set specify for an applet in personalization
A. Order condition
B. Search Specification
C. Set of Actions
D. Set of Events
Ans: B

57. What determines localization
A. Tools Language Mode
B. Siebel Tools
C. Regional Settings
D. OS regional settings
Ans: B

58. What does “GetAttribute(‘Me.Country’) = ‘USA’ tell us
A. Laptop being used is placed in USA
B. Laptops regional setting is set to USA
C. It checks for the address as ‘USA’
Ans: C

59. A Screen is a collection of
A. Applets
B. Business Components
C. Views
D. Business Objects
Ans: C

60. How does Siebel Remote Client connect
A. Through Gateway server
B. Through Domain Server
C. Through Enterprise Server
D. Directly
Ans: A